Many get confused when reading the New Testiment why Jesus would called himself on multiple occasions the Son of Man when he was showing the world he was the son of God. Some people believe that was a way to say he was human as well. This isn't true at all. When Jesus called himself the Son of Man he was refering to Daniel 7:13-14 which prophesies “In my vision at night I looked, and there before me was one like a son of man, coming with the clouds of heaven. He approached the Ancient of Days and was led into his presence. He was given authority, glory and sovereign power; all nations and peoples of every language worshiped him. His dominion is an everlasting dominion that will not pass away, and his kingdom is one that will never be destroyed." In the era that Christ lived every learned Jewish man would have known when he was calling himself the Son of Man he was in fact claiming to be the messiah.
Posted: Thu Jan 27, 2011 6:22 pm
I kinda comprehend but I'm still confused. I always woundered why Jesus called himself the son of man so this interesting. Thanks for sharing! mrgreen
starry night-163
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Posted: Thu Jan 27, 2011 6:28 pm
starry night-163
I kinda comprehend but I'm still confused. I always woundered why Jesus called himself the son of man so this interesting. Thanks for sharing! mrgreen
What are you confused about? Maybe I can help explain it better.
Posted: Thu Jan 27, 2011 8:08 pm
When Jesus returns, we will see that He is a man like ourselves. It is for this reason that He is called both "Son of God" and "Son of Man". John makes it clear that both titles are synonymous when calls Jesus Chirst "Son of Man which is in Heaven" (John 3:13). "Man of Holiness" was an anciently title given to God the Father; thus Jesus was literally the "Son of Man of Holiness".
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Posted: Thu Jan 27, 2011 8:33 pm
Shadows-shine
When Jesus returns, we will see that He is a man like ourselves. It is for this reason that He is called both "Son of God" and "Son of Man". John makes it clear that both titles are synonymous when calls Jesus Chirst "Son of Man which is in Heaven" (John 3:13). "Man of Holiness" was an anciently title given to God the Father; thus Jesus was literally the "Son of Man of Holiness".
I never said he wasn't fully man. I just said that they have the reference wrong when they think he's refering to himself being man. It was a reference to the prophecy.
Posted: Thu Jan 27, 2011 10:06 pm
Well, I think it's both. Specifically at that exact time it was a reference to himself as the Messiah, but that verse specifically refers to the messiah being "like a son of man". So while that may not have exactly been his specific intent when saying it, but that is carried in the connotation.
I'm not sure that's worded very well. . . I need to hit the hay soon. =w=;